MATHS SSLC QUESTIONS

Four alternatives are suggested to each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Choose the most appropriate alternative and write the answer in the
space provided below each question.

60 × 1 = 60

1. If set A = { 2, 3, 4, 5 } and set B = { 4, 5 } , then which of the following is a null
set ?
(A) A – B (B) B – A
(C) A U B (D) A I B.
Ans. :

2. P, Q and R are three sets, then ( P U Q ) I ( P U R ) =
(A) P U ( Q U R ) (B) P I ( Q U R )
(C) P U ( Q I R ) (D) P I ( Q I R ).
Ans. :

3. A and B are the subsets of set U, A l U B l = { 2, 3, 5 } and
U = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 } , then A I B =
(A) { 2, 3, 5 } (B) { 1, 4 }
(C) { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 } (D) { 1, 4, 6 } .
Ans. :

4. In a class of 50 students everyone should be a member of either Science club, or
Maths club or even both. 29 students are the members of Science club and
11 students are the members of both the clubs. Then the number of students in
Maths club only is
(A) 21 (B) 18
(C) 11 (D) 10.
Ans. :

5. In sets A and B if A – B = A, then A I B =
(A) A (B) B
(C) U (D) φ.
Ans. :

6. In an arithmetic progression T n = 3n – 1, then common difference =
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4.
Ans. :

7. In an arithmetic progression T n + 5 = 35 and T n + 1 = 23 then common difference is
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 3n (D) 2n.
Ans. :

8. Geometric mean of three numbers is 4. Then their product is
(A) 16 (B) 64
(C) 128 (D) 256.
Ans. :

9. The harmonic mean of P and Q is
(A)
2 ( P + Q )
PQ (B)
2PQ
P + Q
(C)
2 ( P + Q )
P – Q (D)
2 P + Q
PQ .
Ans. :

10. If 


  
2 2x – 6
0 3
is a diagonal matrix, then x is equal to
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3.
Ans. :

11. If ( AB ) l = 


  
2 3
5 6
, then B l A l =
(A) 


  
2 5
3 6
(B) 


  
2 3
6 5
(C) 


  
2 3
5 6
(D) 

   5
6
2 3
.
Ans. :

12. n P 1 + n C 1 =
(A) 2n (B) n
(C) 2 (D) n + 1.
Ans. :

13. Value of 20 C 18 =
(A) 360 (B) 300
(C) 180 (D) 190.
Ans. :

14. If n P 3 = 120, then n is equal to
(A) 12 (B) 10
(C) 8 (D) 6.
Ans. :

15. The correct relation is
(A) n P r = n C r × r (B) n C r = n P r × r
(C) n P r = n C r ÷ r (D) n C r = n P r + r .
Ans. :

16. Sheela is one among 5 girls in a group. 5 chairs are kept in a row. In how many ways
can Sheela sit in the middle chair ?
(A) 5 P 5 (B) 4 P 4
(C) 5 P 4 × 2 P 2 (D) 4 P 4 × 2 P 2 .
Ans. :

17. If the value of standard deviation is 0·9, then the value of variance is
(A) 0·81 (B) 8·1
(C) 0·3 (D) 0·03.
Ans. :

18. If the value of standard deviation of 10 scores is 0, then the scores
(A) are equal to one another but opposite in signs
(B) are equal to each other
(C) are unequal to one another
(D) increase by one.
Ans. :

19. Coefficient of variation of price of 4 foodgrains namely rice, wheat, jowar and ragi are
9·2, 9·9, 9·8 and 9·0 respectively. Then which foodgrain’s rate is more consistent ?
(A) Rice (B) Wheat
(C) Jowar (D) Ragi.
Ans. :

20. H.C.F. of ( a + b ) and ( a – b ) is
(A) ( a + b ) (B) a 2 – b 2
(C) 1 (D) 0.
Ans. :

21. When Σ
x‚ y‚ z
( x + y ) is expanded, we get
(A) x + y + z (B) 2x + 2y + 2z
(C) 3x + 3y + 3z (D) 3xyz.
Ans. :

22. The value of Σ
a‚ b‚ c
( a – b ) is equal to
(A) a – b – c (B) a + b + c
(C) 1 (D) 0.
Ans. :

23. ( a + b ) and ( a 2 + b 2 – ab ) are the factors of
(A) a 3 + b 3 (B) a 3 – b 3
(C) ( a + b ) 3 (D) ( a – b ) 3 .
Ans. :

24. If a – 2b – 3c = 0 then a 3 – 8b 3 – 27c 3 =
(A) 3abc (B) – 6abc
(C) 18abc (D) – 27abc.
Ans. :

25. The order and radicand of a n x
respectively are
(A) a and n (B) a and x
(C) n and x (D) x and n.
Ans. :

26. 32 + 50 =
(A) 82 (B) 5 3
(C) 7 2 (D) 9 2 .
Ans. :

27. Rationalising factor of 5 p – q is
(A) 5 p + q (B) p – q
(C) p + q (D) 5 p + 5 q .
Ans. :

28. When 2 x – y is subtracted from 5 x + 2 y , the answer is
(A) 3 x + 3 y (B) 3 x – y
(C) 3 x + y (D) 3 x – 3 y .
Ans. :

29. An example for pure quadratic equation is
(A) 2x 2 – x = 0 (B) 5x = 3
(C) 4x = 9x 2 (D) 2x 2 = 16.
Ans. :

30. If an equation has only one root, then the equation is
(A) quadratic equation (B) linear equation
(C) cubic equation (D) simultaneous equation.
Ans. :

31. If F =
mv 2
r then v =
(A)
Fm
r (B)
mr
F
(C)
Fr
m (D)
F
rm .
Ans. :

32. One of the positive roots of the equation ( 2x – 7 ) ( 3x – 5 ) = 0 is
(A)
72
(B)
27
(C)
35
(D)
57
.
Ans. :

33. Value of x in the equation px 2 + qx + r = 0 is
(A)
– p ± p 2 – 4pq
2p (B)
– q ± q 2 – 4pr
2p
(C)
– p ± r 2 – 4pq
2r (D)
– p ± p 2 – 4pq
2q .
Ans. :

34. The length of a rectangle is 4 cm more than the breadth. The area is 60 sq.cm. This
can be represented as
(A) x + ( x + 4 ) = 60 (B) x + ( x + 4 ) – 60 = 0
(C) ( x + 4 ) x + 60 = 0 (D) ( x + 4 ) x – 60 = 0.
Ans. :

35. The nature of the roots of the equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0 is decided by
(A) b 2 – 4ac (B) b 2 + 4ac
(C) b – 4ac (D) b + 4ac.
Ans. :

36. The product of the roots of the equation 2x 2 = 3x is
(A) –
23
(B)
32
(C) 0 (D)
12
.
Ans. :

37. The positive value of m for which the roots of the equation x 2 – mx + 25 = 0 are
equal, is
(A) 20 (B) 10
(C) 15 (D) 5.
Ans. :


38. If the sum of the roots of a quadratic equation is – 5 and the product is 4, then the
equation is
(A) x 2 + 5x + 4 = 0 (B) x 2 – 5x + 4 = 0
(C) x 2 + x – 20 = 0 (D) x 2 – x – 20 = 0.
Ans. :

39. If a and b are the roots of the equation x 2 – 5x + 7 = 0, then ab ( a + b ) =
(A) 5 (B) 25
(C) 35 (D) 49.
Ans. :

40. The product of the roots of the equation x 2 + 5x + ( k + 4 ) = 0 is zero, then k =
(A) – 5 (B) – 4
(C) 4 (D) 5.
Ans. :

41. The greatest remainder obtained when an integer is divided by ( m + 1 ) is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) m – 1 (D) m.
Ans. :

42. Value of x, if x ⊕ 10 x ≡ 2, is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 6 (D) 7.
Ans. :

43. If n C 3 = n C 8 , then the value of n C 1 =
(A) 3 (B) 11
(C) 24 (D) 336.
Ans. :

44. AB and CD are two equal and parallel chords in a circle. If the distance from the
centre of the circle to the chord AB = 2x units, then the distance between the chords
is
(A) 4x units (B) 2x units
(C) x units (D) 1 unit.
Ans. :

45. ∠ ABC is an angle in a major arc. Then ∠ ABC is
(A) Obtuse angle (B) Right angle
(C) Acute angle (D) Straight angle.
Ans. :

46. Which of the following is a correct statement ?
(A) All the rectangles are similar
(B) All the rhombuses are similar
(C) All the right-angled triangles are similar
(D) All the equilateral triangles are similar.
Ans. :

47. In Δ ABC, PQ  AB . The correct relation is
A
B Q C
P
(A)
BQ
BA =
CP
CA (B)
AP
PC =
BQ
QC
(C)
PQ
BQ =
AB
BC (D)
PQ
QC =
AB
AP .
Ans. :

48. If the perimeters of two similar triangles are in the ratio of 4 : 1, then the ratio
between their areas will be
(A) 16 : 1 (B) 4 : 1
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 2 : 1.
Ans. :


49. In the figure, ∠ ABC = ∠ AQP = 90°. Then,
AQ
AB =
B C
Q
P
A
(A)
BC
PQ (B)
AC
PQ
(C)
QP
BC (D)
AP
AB .
Ans. :

50. In the figure, AB is tangent to the circle with centre O. If ∠ AOB = 30°, then ∠ A and
∠ B respectively are
A
O B
(A) 75°, 75° (B) 100°, 50°
(C) 80°, 70° (D) 90°, 60°.
Ans. :

51. Radii of two circles are 5 cm and 3 cm respectively and the distance between their
centres is 6 cm. Then they are
(A) touching externally (B) intersecting circles
(C) touching internally (D) concentric circles.
Ans. :


52. In the figure, A and B are the centres of two circles with radii 6 cm and 2 cm
respectively. CD is the diameter, then MD =
. . . D
A
B
C
M
(A) 8 cm (B) 6 cm
(C) 4 cm (D) 2 cm.
Ans. :

53. In the figure, AB, AC and BD are the tangents as shown in the figure. If AB = x cm,
BD = y cm, then AC =
D
B
A
O
C
.
(A) x cm (B) y cm
(C) ( x – y ) cm (D) ( x + y ) cm.
Ans. :

54. The formula used to find the total surface area of a solid cylinder is
(A) 2 πrh (B) 2 πr 2 ( r + h )
(C) πr ( r + h ) (D) 2 πr ( r + h ) .
Ans. :

55. The number of plane surfaces in a solid cone is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3.
Ans. :

56. Ratio between the radii of two solid spheres is 2 : 3, then the ratio between their
volumes is
(A) 8 : 27 (B) 4 : 9
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 2 : 3 .
Ans. :

57. The volume of a solid cone is 60 cm 3 and the area of the base is 20 cm 2 . Then the
height is
(A) 6 cm (B) 9 cm
(C) 12 cm (D) 18 cm.
Ans. :

58. A metal sheet of length 2 m and breadth 44 cm is rolled to form a hollow pipe of
length 2 m. Then the radius of that pipe is
(A) 44 cm (B) 22 cm
(C) 11 cm (D) 7 cm.
Ans. :

59. The numbers of vertices and edges respectively in a tetrahedron are
(A) 4, 6 (B) 6, 4
(C) 8, 6 (D) 6, 8.
Ans. :

60. The numbers of regions and nodes in the given network are
(A) 3, 2 (B) 3, 3
(C) 4, 2 (D) 4, 5
Ans. :

SCIENCE SSLC OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 2

GROUP - I
( Physics & Chemistry )
( Marks : 65 )
PART - A
Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the most
appropriate alternative and write it in the space provided below each question.
39 × 1 = 39

1. In a conductor, a changing magnetic field linking a conductor induces
(A) resistance (B) motor force
(C) electromotive force (D) magnetic force.
Ans :

2. How many times does the direction of the electric current change when the armature
of an A.C. dynamo makes five cycles ?
(A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 15 (D) 20.
Ans :

3. Number of photoelectrons ejected by a radiation in photoelectric effect is directly
proportional to its
(A) intensity
(B) frequency
(C) wavelength
(D) velocity.
Ans :

4. The electromagnetic radiation used in the treatment of cancer is
(A) infrared
(B) violet
(C) visible light
(D) gamma.
Ans :

5. The reason for rectifying action of a diode is
(A) low resistance in n-p direction
(B) high resistance in n-p direction
(C) very low resistance in n-p direction
(D) double the resistance in p-n direction.
Ans :

6. The dopant used in p-type semiconductors is
(A) aluminium
(B) phosphorus
(C) arsenic
(D) antimony.
Ans :

7. The function of detector in a radio receiver is to
(A) mix RF and AF signals
(B) amplify RF signals
(C) separate RF and AF signals
(D) amplify AF signals.
Ans :

8. The passengers inside an automobile moving fast along a curve feel pushed outwards
due to
(A) centripetal force
(B) centripetal reaction
(C) centrifugal reaction
(D) centripetal acceleration.
Ans :

9. When a mixture of mercury and water in a vessel is rotated using a centrifuge, the
highest centrifugal reaction is experienced by
(A) water
(B) mercury
(C) both water and mercury
(D) vessel.
Ans :

10. The tides due to the sun and moon can be explained by
(A) Kepler’s first law
(B) Kepler’s second law
(C) Newton’s third law
(D) law of gravitation.
Ans :

11. When the distance between two celestial bodies is increased by two times the original
distance, the gravitional force between them
(A) increases by 2 times
(B) decreases by 2 times
(C) increases by 4 times
(D) decreases by 4 times.
Ans :

12. The weight of an object is slightly higher near the poles than that at the equator, due
to earth’s
(A) atmosphere
(B) spherical shape
(C) geoid shape
(D) magnetic field.
Ans :

13. The part of a heat engine that converts linear movement into circular motion is
(A) crankshaft (B) piston rod
(C) piston (D) cylinder.
Ans :

14. Efficiency of an engine which performs work of 400 joules by utilising 1000 joules of
heat energy is
(A) 80%
(B) 60%
(C) 40%
(D) 20%.
Ans :

15. The ray that bends most in the dispersed light when sunlight is passed through a
prism is
(A) Red (B) Blue
(C) Orange (D) Violet.
Ans :

16. When monochromatic light is passed through benzene, the scattered light is
(A) monochromatic
(B) polychromatic
(C) coherent
(D) of the same wavelength.
Ans :

17. In a spectrometer collimator consists of
(A) lens and slit
(B) prism
(C) telescope
(D) source of light.
Ans :

18. The ultrasonic wave sent by a Sonar takes 4 seconds to return. The distance of the
object is [ the velocity of sound in water is 1·5 km/sec ]
(A) 6 km (B) 3 km
(C) 2 km (D) 1 km.
Ans :

19. The principle of working of radar gun used by traffic control authorities to detect
vehicles crossing speed limit, is
(A) Raman effect
(B) Rayleigh scattering
(C) Tyndall effect
(D) Doppler effect.
Ans :

20. The end stage of sun like stars is
(A) Black dwarf
(B) Black hole
(C) White dwarf
(D) Neutron star.
Ans :

21. The velocity of recession of celestial bodies is directly proportional to
(A) mass
(B) period of rotation
(C) distance
(D) volume.
Ans :

22. How many times is a star of magnitude + 1 brighter than a star of magnitude + 3 ?
(A) 6·25 (B) 6·15
(C) 6·05 (D) 6·00.
Ans :

23. The difference between normal hydrogen 1 H 1 and dueterium 1 H 2 is caused by
particle
(A) Proton (B) Electron
(C) Positron (D) Neutron.
Ans :

24. The main source of electricity for artificial satellites is
(A) dry cells (B) solar cells
(C) acid cells (D) dynamo.
Ans :

25. The reason for painting the copper pipes with black paint in solar water heater is to
(A) reflect sunlight
(B) prevent the heat loss
(C) absorb solar energy
(D) prevent copper from reacting with air.
Ans :

26. To solve the problem of energy crisis to some extent the device that you may
recommend is
(A) pressure cooker
(B) firewood stove
(C) kerosene stove
(D) electric stove.
Ans :

27. In the refining of copper the mass of cathode
(A) decreases
(B) increases
(C) decreases gradually
(D) remains as before.
Ans :

28. The most reactive metal among the following is
(A) Zinc (B) Magnesium
(C) Iron (D) Sodium.
Ans :

29. In the extraction of amorphous silicon, the purpose of washing the products is, to
(A) dissolve silicon (B) dissolve magnesium oxide
(C) purify magnesium oxide (D) remove excess of silica.
Ans :

30. Silicones are used as insulators in electric motors because they
(A) become soft on heating
(B) have low resistance
(C) do not become soft on heating
(D) are thermoplastics.
Ans :

31. One of the characteristics of isomer is
(A) different molecular formula
(B) same structural formula
(C) same physical and chemical properties
(D) same molecular formula but different structures.
Ans :

32. The reason for adding ethyl mercaptan to liquefied petroleum gas is, to
(A) increase the efficiency of the stove
(B) prevent leakage of LPG
(C) detect leakage of LPG easily
(D) save fuel.
Ans :

33. How many moles of oxygen are necessary for the complete combustion of two moles
of butane ?
(A) 10 (B) 11
(C) 12 (D) 13.
Ans :

34. An example for polymer is
(A) chloroprene
(B) polythene
(C) carbolactum
(D) vinyl chloride.
Ans :

35. In the manufacture of cement the reason for adding gypsum is, to
(A) harden quickly
(B) make the concrete mix smooth
(C) increase the binding force
(D) prevent rapid setting.
Ans :

36. The use of plastic should be minimised because they are
(A) biodegradable
(B) non-biodegradable
(C) expensive
(D) brittle.
Ans :

37. The boiling method of softening hard water is not suitable when which of the
following salts are present in hard water ?
(A) Ca ( HCO ) 3 2
(B) Ca ( HCO ) 3 2 and Mg ( HCO ) 3 2
(C) Mg ( HCO ) 3 2
(D) Mg Cl 2 and CaSO 4 .
Ans :

38. The acid that is not related to saponification reaction is
(A) Sulphuric acid
(B) Stearic acid
(C) Oleic acid
(D) Palmitic acid.
Ans :

39. The use of detergents should be minimised because they
(A) are expensive
(B) are pollutants
(C) remove the colour of cloths
(D) decrease durability of cloths.
Ans :

GROUP - II
( Biology )
( Marks : 35 )
PART - C
Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the most
appropriate alternative and write it in the space provided below each question.
21 × 1 = 21

51. Phycoerythrin and phycocyanin are found in
(A) red algae
(B) blue green algae
(C) brown algae
(D) green algae.
Ans :

52. The number of chambers in the heart of birds is
(A) one
(B) three
(C) two
(D) four.
Ans :

53. In bryophytes, root like structures are called
(A) tap root (B) fibrous root
(C) rhizoids (D) prop root.
Ans :

54. In animals, fat is stored in
(A) areolar tissue
(B) cartilage tissue
(C) adipose tissue
(D) reticular tissue.
Ans :

55. The study of tissue is called
(A) Cytology
(B) Embryology
(C) Histology
(D) Pathology.
Ans :

56. The tissue used to prepare gunny bags is
(A) Parenchyma
(B) Collenchyma
(C) Sclerenchyma
(D) Phloem.
Ans :

57. The function of hormone can be compared to the function of a
(A) messenger (B) storekeeper
(C) convenor (D) manager.
Ans :

58. Small insects entering the ear can be removed by filling the external ear with
(A) hot water (B) salt water
(C) ice water (D) warm coconut oil.
Ans :

59. The brain of an adult man weighs about
(A) 1400 gms
(B) 1600 gms
(C) 2000 gms
(D) 1200 gms.
Ans :

60. Test to detect H.I.V. is
(A) Heart test
(B) R.B.C. test
(C) ELISA test
(D) Urine test.
Ans :

61. Hepatitis B is dangerous since it damages
(A) brain
(B) liver
(C) heart
(D) intestine.
Ans :

62. The disease which is not spread by using public toilets is
(A) Cholera
(B) Malaria
(C) Hepatitis B
(D) AIDS.
Ans :

63. A person is suffering from a disease known as dropsy. The adulterent which causes
it, is
(A) mineral oil
(B) argemone oil
(C) coconut oil
(D) kerosene oil.
Ans :

64. The instrument used to test the density of milk is
(A) Thermometer (B) Lactometer
(C) Manometer (D) Hydrometer.
Ans :

65. One should examine for which of the following certifications while purchasing packed
food in the market ?
(A) WHO mark
(B) ISI mark
(C) FAO mark
(D) ISO mark.
Ans :

66. Which of the following bacteria takes part in denitrification ?
(A) Pseudomonas
(B) Nitrosomonas
(C) Nitrobacter
(D) Rhizobium.
Ans :

67. Growing broad leafed plants helps in
(A) cutting the wind speed
(B) reducing sound pollution
(C) reducing air pollution
(D) beautifying the sorroundings.
Ans :

68. Smog is more common in
(A) industrially dense area
(B) hilly area with thick vegetation
(C) river valley area
(D) area with closely built-up villages.
Ans :

69. The disease ‘Minamata’ is caused by an industrial pollutant named
(A) Lead
(B) Chromium
(C) Mercury
(D) Cadmium.
Ans :

70. D.N.A. fingerprint technology has found significance in the field of
(A) Genetics
(B) Forensic science
(C) Agricultural science
(D) Physiology.
Ans :

71. Knowledge of cloning promotes
(A) creation of living things by asexual method
(B) destroying dangerous living species
(C) controlling population explosion
(D) creating living things by sexual method.
Ans :

SCIENCE SSLC OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

GROUP - I
( Physics & Chemistry )
( Marks : 65 )
PART - A
Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the most
appropriate alternative and write it in the space provided below each question.
39 × 1 = 39

1. “A current carrying conductor experiences a mechanical force in a magnetic field.”
The device which works on this principle is a/an
(A) electric motor (B) A.C. dynamo
(C) D.C. dynamo (D) commutator.
Ans :

2. ‘Volt’ is the unit of which of the following quantities ?
(A) Electric current and potential difference
(B) Potential difference and electromotive force
(C) Electromotive force and electrical resistance
(D) Electrical resistance and electric current.
Ans :

3. Dr. Sahana has to treat her patient who is suffering from rickets. The
electromagnetic radiation to be used for this treatment is
(A) ultraviolet radiations of high frequency
(B) infrared rays of high frequency
(C) ultraviolet radiations of low frequency
(D) infrared rays of low frequency.
Ans :

4. Identify the correct relationship among the three given below with respect to X-rays :
1 2 3
L) William Roentgen P) heating effect X) Blood circulation
M) J.W. Ritter Q) absorbed by ozone layer Y) Sterilizer
N) W. Herschel R) passes through the skin Z) Radiography
(A) L, R, Z (B) M, Q, X
(C) N, P, Y (D) M, R, X.
Ans :

5. A reverse biased p-n junction offers a high resistance, because
(A) charge carriers flow across the junction
(B) the cell used supplies direct current
(C) charge carriers flow in the same direction
(D) charge carriers are repelled away from the junction.
Ans :

6. The two major parts in total radio broadcasting system are
(A) microphone and mixer
(B) speaker and detector
(C) transmitter and receiver
(D) speaker and receiving antenna.
Ans :

7. If there is voltage fluctuation in domestic circuit, the device that you use to regulate
voltage in an electrical appliance is
(A) a transducer
(B) an oscillator
(C) a diode
(D) a detector.
Ans :

8. A cyclist while going round a curve leans towards the centre of the curve to get
necessary
(A) centrifugal force
(B) centripetal force
(C) gravitational force
(D) centrifugal reaction.
Ans :

9. The device that can be fitted to the engine of a bus to prevent the driver from driving
it with overspeed is
(A) centrifugal pump
(B) centrifuge
(C) centrifugal drying machine
(D) centrifugal governor.
Ans :

10. For a satellite orbiting the earth, centripetal force is provided by
(A) the place of launch
(B) gravitational force
(C) the size of the satellite
(D) mass of the satellite.
Ans :

11. The value of ‘g’
(A) does not depend on the mass of the object
(B) is proportional to the mass of the object
(C) does not depend on the mass of the earth
(D) does not depend upon the radius of the earth.
Ans :

12. The masses of two objects are ‘a’ and ‘b’ and the force of attraction between them is
‘F’. The distance between them is given by
(A)
G ab
F (B) F G ab
(C)
F
G ab (D)
G ab
F
Ans :

13. The factor that does not contribute for the dispersion of light in a glass prism, is
(A) the prism is transparent
(B) double refraction takes place
(C) light gets reflected by the prism
(D) white light is made of several colours.
Ans :

14. The sketch of correct arrangement of prisms for the dispersion and recombination of
colours of composite light is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans :

15. A student wants to get a band of distinct seven colours occupying their respective
positions using a glass prism. The device that he can select for this purpose is a
(A) Telescope
(B) Spectroscope
(C) Microscope
(D) Binocular.
Ans :

16. Doppler effect in sound is observed as a change in its
(A) pitch (B) velocity
(C) amplitude (D) speed.
Ans :

17. The ultrasound signal sent in water by sonar takes 3 seconds to return. If the
velocity of sound in water is 1·5 kms/sec, the distance travelled by the signal is
(A) 2·25 kms (B) 4·5 kms
(C) 6 kms (D) 9 kms.
Ans :

18. The red shift of galaxies show that the
(A) universe is contracting
(B) galaxies are coming towards us
(C) velocity of light changes
(D) universe is expanding.
Ans :

19. The matter that streams out of the sun’s surface in bursts like thunderstorms is
(A) granulation
(B) spicule
(C) solar flare
(D) solar prominence.
Ans :

20. The magnitudes of four stars P, Q, R and S are respectively 0, – 5, + 5 and – 10. The
brightest star among them is
(A) S (B) R
(C) Q (D) P.
Ans :

21. Machine parts in an industry are to be checked for defects. The radio-isotope used
for this purpose is
(A) Radio-Iodine
(B) Radio-Iridium
(C) Radio-Carbon
(D) Radio-Phosphorous.
Ans :

22. Which of the following has 146 neutrons ?
(A) 92 U 235
(B) 88 Ra 226
(C) 86 Rn 222
(D) 92 U 238
Ans :

23. Tritium nucleus contains
(A) three protons
(B) one proton and two neutrons
(C) two protons and one neutron
(D) three neutrons.
Ans :

24. The light absorbing material used in a solar cell is
(A) silicon (B) phosphorous
(C) carbon (D) radium.
Ans :

25. The technique which established that the sun is made of mostly hydrogen is
(A) spectrum analysis
(B) chemical analysis
(C) scanning
(D) laser ranging.
Ans :

26. The fuel used in gobar gas plant is
(A) animal dung
(B) firewood
(C) coal
(D) charcoal.
Ans :

27. Brass, German silver and Gunmetal are the alloys of copper. Apart from copper the
other common metal in them is
(A) zinc
(B) tin
(C) iron
(D) nickel.
Ans :

28. You are required to arrange Fe, Zn and Mg in the increasing order of their reactivity.
The correct arrangement is
(A) Mg, Zn, Fe
(B) Fe, Mg, Zn
(C) Fe, Zn, Mg
(D) Zn, Mg, Fe.
Ans :

29. Sodium aluminium silicate is also called
(A) washing soda
(B) silicone
(C) water glass
(D) zeolite.
Ans :
30.
C
H H
H
H
H
H
C C
Name of this structure is
(A) propyne
(B) propane
(C) cyclopropane
(D) propene.
Ans :

31. During the extraction of silicon from quartz, unchanged silica is removed by using
(A) Hydrochloric acid
(B) Hydrofluoric acid
(C) Nitric acid
(D) Sulphuric acid.
Ans :

32. The permitted level of emission of carbon monoxide of my vehicle is 3%. My vehicle is
(A) a scooter
(B) a lorry
(C) an auto-rickshaw
(D) a car.
Ans :

33. The chemical which is mixed with L.P.G. to detect the leakage of the gas is
(A) Methyl Mercaptan
(B) Benzyl Mercaptan
(C) Ethyl Mercaptan
(D) Propyl Mercaptan.
Ans :

34. During the manufacture of glass, molten glass is cooled slowly to make it
(A) more brittle
(B) colourful
(C) withstand high temperature
(D) lose brittleness.
Ans :

35. The polymer that can be used as gasket of a pressure cooker is
(A) thiokol
(B) teflon
(C) nylon
(D) neoprene.
Ans :

36. Raw materials used in the manufacture of cement are
(A) clay and washing soda
(B) clay and limestone
(C) washing soda and limestone
(D) calcium silicate and clay.
Ans :

37. Which of the following is a soap ?
(A) Sodium sulphate
(B) Sodium stearate
(C) Sodium chloride
(D) Sodium nitrate.
Ans :

38. Which among the following is not a method of conservation of water ?
(A) Growing trees and conserving soil
(B) Using improved method of farming
(C) Removing the forests and constructing lakes
(D) Collecting the roof water and using it.
Ans :

39. During the preparation of soap the liquid separated by distillation is
(A) sodium hydroxide
(B) oil
(C) stearic acid
(D) glycerol.

GROUP - II
( Biology )
( Marks : 35 )
PART - C
Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the most
appropriate alternative and write it in the space provided below each question.
21 × 1 = 21

51. Two chambered heart is found in
(A) pisces (B) amphibians
(C) reptiles (D) aves.
Ans :

52. Which one of the following is deliberate adulteration ?
(A) Coating of pesticides on fruits
(B) Rice like stones in rice
(C) Grass in coriander
(D) Dust in foodgrains.
Ans :

53. Prothallus is an independent structure of
(A) gametophyte of bryophytes (B) sporophyte of bryophytes
(C) gametophyte of pteridophytes (D) sporophyte of pteridophytes.
Ans :

54. Embryonic cells which always divide and form new cells are found in
(A) meristem
(B) parenchyma
(C) collenchyma
(D) sclerenchyma.
Ans :

55. Which one of the following is an imperfect cycle ?
(A) Carbon cycle
(B) Oxygen cycle
(C) Phosphorus cycle
(D) Nitrogen cycle.
Ans :

56. The type of leaf venation shown in the figure is found in plants of
(A) ragi
(B) mustard dia.
(C) wheat
(D) maize.
Ans :

57. While developing a good public hospital, the management gives priority to
(A) large open field around the hospital
(B) parking space for all types of public vehicles
(C) a garden with good number of shady trees
(D) space for caterer who supply food at cheap rates.
Ans :

58. Epithelium tissue in Alveoli and blood capillaries referred as endothelium is
(A) columnar epithelium
(B) squamous epithelium
(C) ciliated epithelium
(D) cuboid epithelium.
Ans :

59. Adulteration of food means
(A) processing of food
(B) transportation of food
(C) storage of food
(D) removing nutritive value of food.
Ans :

60. Denitrification is the process of
(A) fixing nitrogen in the soil
(B) changing proteins into ammonium salts
(C) conversion of ammonium salts into nitrates
(D) changing nitrates into free nitrogen.
Ans :

61. Due to low secretion of insulin in the body, a person will have
(A) low blood pressure
(B) high blood pressure
(C) high sugar level in the blood
(D) low sugar level in the blood.
Ans :

62. Now the government policy is to discourage use of plastic bags. The scientific reason
for this is that they are
(A) non-biodegradable but non-toxic
(B) biodegradable
(C) non-biodegradable
(D) biodegradable but toxic.
Ans :

63. One of the main symptoms of Hepatitis-B is
(A) body weight loss
(B) profuse sweating
(C) burning sensation in trachea
(D) indication of jaundice.
Ans :

64. When concentrated nitric acid is added to a sample of cooking oil to detect the
adulteration it turns
(A) yellow in colour
(B) black in colour
(C) reddish brown in colour
(D) yellowish brown in colour.
Ans :

65. Production of genetically similar organisms inside or outside the body is
(A) tissue culturing
(B) cloning
(C) genetic engineering
(D) recombinant DNA technology.
Ans :

66. The tissue that helps in defence of the body by engulfing bacteria and digesting toxic
substances is
(A) adipose tissue
(B) reticular tissue
(C) areolar tissue
(D) cartilage tissue.
Ans :

67. Cerebrum controls which one of the following functions ?
(A) Reasoning
(B) Mastication
(C) Walking
(D) Vomiting.
Ans :

68. HIV ultimately destroys which one of the following ?
(A) Liver and pancreas
(B) Production of proteins
(C) Defence mechanism
(D) Enzyme secretion.
Ans :

69. Genetic relation between a father and a son is determined by a technique of
(A) genetic engineering
(B) DNA fingerprint technology
(C) tissue culturing
(D) cloning.
Ans :

70. The outermost layer of the eyeball is
(A) conjunctiva
(B) sclera
(C) choroid
(D) retina.
Ans :

71. An HIV positive mother should not
(A) kiss the child
(B) breast-feed the child
(C) carry the child
(D) bathe the child.

SSLC ENGLISH OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

Subject : First Language — ENGLISH

PART – A
Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the most
appropriate alternative and write it in the space provided below each question.

50 × 1 = 50

1. Which one of the following is a sign of civilization ?
(A) Living in a palatial house (B) Driving a posh car
(C) Discovering new things (D) Inheriting power and riches.
Ans.

2. The necessities for a man to think freely are
(A) security, leisure and knowledge (B) luxury, security and beauty
(C) security, leisure and power (D) security, leisure and society.
Ans.

3. The author A. L. Hendricks describes the two boys as
(A) weak (B) bright
(C) strong (D) sturdy.
Ans.

4. The distance between the author’s house and the tramlines is
(A) half a mile (B) one and a half mile
(C) two miles (D) one mile.
Ans.

5. The author was amazed, when
(A) the dark boy obeyed the white boy’s orders faithfully
(B) he saw the boys playing on the lawn
(C) he thought about the inferiority of his race
(D) the white boy enacting the role of a master.
Ans.

6. The white man’s wife was a brown woman. This tells us that
(A) Jamaica was a democratic country (B) there was no racial discrimination
(C) there was racial discrimination (D) the Jamaicans were loving people.
Ans.

7. According to the author curtailment of private liberty brings about
(A) social justice (B) social order
(C) economic equality (D) social anarchy.
Ans.

8. Sudha described her America tour as
(A) enjoyable and touching (B) tedious yet enjoyable
(C) enjoyable and memorable (D) tedious and touching.
Ans.

9. A card saying “Congratulations, you have made it !” was given by
(A) Sudha’s father (B) Washington audience
(C) a young girl (D) Sudha’s guru.
Ans.

10. Which one of the following can be the suitable theme for the lesson ‘Long Exile’ ?
(A) Justice delayed ; Justice denied.
(B) It takes two to make a quarrel.
(C) Where there is a will, there is a way.
(D) It is an ill wind that blows nobody any good.
Ans.

11. When the police officials alighted from the troika, Aksionov was
(A) sleeping under a tree (B) feeding his horses
(C) playing his guitar (D) singing songs joyfully.
Ans.

12. The incident that caused the greatest sorrow to Aksionov was, when he was
(A) accused as guilty
(B) suspected by his wife
(C) condemned to be flogged
(D) flung into the cart with his feet tied.
Ans.

13. Makar was sent to the prison, because
(A) he had been caught for killing the merchant
(B) he had been accused of stealing a horse
(C) he had murdered a wealthy man
(D) he had stolen some valuables.
Ans.

14. Mihir Sen’s swim was postponed by forty-eight hours, because
(A) his preparation was incomplete
(B) he caught a chill
(C) south-west monsoon broke out suddenly
(D) one of the gun boats was missing.
Ans.

15. In olden days the treatment of a patient was
(A) primitive and simple (B) hard and unbearable
(C) primitive and gratifying (D) hard and primitive.
Ans.

16. The patient requested the doctor to postpone his shaving, because
(A) he had many things to do at his office
(B) he had to arrange some money
(C) he was getting annoyed for the delay
(D) he had been very tired.
Ans.

17. Dr. Follicle’s examination revealed
(A) a partial growth of hair (B) the patient’s history
(C) disease affected skin (D) an unhealthy growth of hair.
Ans.

18. The shoe-shining boy polished only the left shoe because
(A) he was left handed
(B) he was specialized in the use of left hand
(C) he had no right hand
(D) he liked to polish only the left shoe.
Ans.

19. The purpose of conducting a mock-fight between Balarama and Revathi was to
(A) test her proficiency in warfare
(B) enable Revathi to be very strong
(C) make Kukudmin understand Balarama’s expertise
(D) teach Revathi some tricks.
Ans.

20. King Revatha vowed before his guardian deity to
(A) destroy the Punyajana Rakshasas
(B) make Revathi victorious in the battle
(C) recapture Kushasthali
(D) immolate himself in the fire if he failed.
Ans.

21. The situation at the home of Baldwin was tense, because
(A) Baldwin had not returned (B) Baldwin was sent for by Gresham
(C) Evie had not returned home (D) Martha was miserably sick.
Ans.

22. What did Gresham want Baldwin to do ?
He wanted Baldwin to
(A) tell the truth (B) say that he did not remember
(C) bring John to the court (D) accept the bribe.
Ans.

23. Gresham offered Baldwin some money to
(A) give witness in his favour (B) tell false details in the court
(C) pretend a little forgetfulness (D) speak the truth.
Ans.

24. “The quest is endless.”
What is this quest for ?
It is for
(A) the soul’s spiritual upliftment (B) human bondage
(C) enjoyment (D) power and position.
Ans.

25. “Sad Sight !” the shepherd with a sigh looked around.
What does this sad sight refer to ?
It refers to
(A) an unusual cry of the dog (B) the human skeleton on the ground
(C) the lonely shepherd (D) the lonely fish that leaps.
Ans.

26. The shepherd saw the dog barking strangely
(A) beside the silent river (B) at the top of the mountain
(C) down the valley (D) among the scattered rocks.
Ans.

27. Rustum gazed on Sohrab with grief, because
(A) Sohrab called himself his son (B) he had killed his son
(C) the latter was wounded severely (D) the latter was strong and formidable.
Ans.

28. The tiger king’s reply to his people suggests that he is
(A) ignorant (B) innocent
(C) contemptuous (D) overconfident.
Ans.

29. “Nice dog, you got there, Ajamil,” suggests the tiger king’s
(A) admiration for the dog (B) attempt to hide his disgrace
(C) attempt to please the shepherd (D) cowardly nature.
Ans.

30. When God says, “so both should losers be”, He means
(A) man will lose both God and his gifts
(B) both man and God lose each other
(C) God will lose both man and his gifts
(D) man loses both power and wealth.
Ans.

31. Which one of the following was not found by the poet in the mailbox ?
(A) Sprigs (B) Twigs
(C) Eggs (D) Letters.
Ans.

32. When do we need noticeable quiet ?
We need it when we
(A) read for pleasure (B) talk to friends
(C) read something as a task (D) go on a long journey.
Ans.

33. Sohrab grew up to be a warrior in the
(A) Persian army (B) Roman army
(C) Tartar army (D) Turkish army.
Ans.

34. The merchant was killed ……………… the robber ……………… a sword.
The suitable prepositions to be filled in the blanks are
(A) with, from (B) by, with
(C) with, by (D) by, from.
Ans.

35. Complete the sentence :
If the rainfall is good, …………… .
(A) the farmers will reap a good harvest
(B) the farmers would reap a good harvest
(C) the farmers are reaping good harvest
(D) the farmers should reap good harvest.
Ans.

36. The boy stood on ……………… deck and watching ……………… huge waves.
The appropriate articles to be filled in the blanks are
(A) an, a (B) the, a
(C) an, the (D) the, the.
Ans.

37. Grievances cannot be redressed ……………… they are known.
The correct conjunction to be filled in the blank is
(A) lest (B) if
(C) unless (D) but.
Ans.

38. The governor gave him a reward.
The passive form of this sentence is
(A) He got a reward from the governor
(B) He is rewarded by the governor
(C) He will be rewarded by the governor
(D) He was given a reward by the governor.
Ans.

39. Her sobs could be heard in the still of the night.
The italicized word is a
(A) Noun (B) Verb
(C) Adjective (D) Preposition.
Ans.

40. “But how old you’ve grown, Grand dad ………… ”
The punctuation mark to be used at the end of the sentence is
(A) Full stop ( . ) (B) Exclamatory mark ( ! )
(C) Question mark ( ? ) (D) Comma ( , ).
Ans.

41. Rita won a prize, ………………
The appropriate question tag to be added is
(A) was she ? (B) did she ?
(C) didn’t she ? (D) wasn’t she ?
Ans.

42. While Balarama ……………… ( talk ), two young women …………… ( come ) to give
them water.
The tense forms of the verbs to be filled in the blanks are
(A) was talking, came (B) is talking, came
(C) talked, were coming (D) talked, are coming.
Ans.

43. The word ‘after’ does not rhyme with
(A) daughter (B) matter
(C) rafter (D) laughter.
Ans.

44. The white younger walked abjectly behind the dark elder one.
The italicized word means
(A) friendly (B) humbly
(C) faithfully (D) eagerly.
Ans.

45. The opposite of the word ‘definable’ can be formed by adding the prefix
(A) in (B) un
(C) non (D) dis.
Ans.

46. England won the match against Australia.
The figure of speech used in the above sentence is
(A) metaphor (B) alliteration
(C) synecdoche (D) personification.
Ans.

47. ‘Officially charge with a crime.’
The one word answer is
(A) Blame (B) Accuse
(C) Indict (D) Abuse.
Ans.

48. The old father did not confide the work of his children.
The noun form of the italicized word is
(A) confidently (B) confidence
(C) confidential (D) confidentially.
Ans.

49. He is too timid to get on in his company.
The opposite word of the italicized word is
(A) arrogant (B) bold
(C) shy (D) brave.
Ans.

50. The soldiers gave in after a long struggle.
The italicized phrase means
(A) discontinued (B) defeated
(C) stopped (D) surrendered.
Ans.

51. Which one of the following is not a sign of civilization ?
(A) Enjoying what one wants (B) Discovering new things
(C) Following the rules of the road (D) Helping the poor and needy.
Ans.

52. The author of the lesson, “Jamaican Fragment” is
(A) Leo Tolstoy (B) C. E. M. Joad
(C) A. L. Hendricks (D) Butler Leacock.
Ans.

53. The author thought that the white man was puzzled because
(A) the blacks were superior to the whites
(B) the blacks would eventually rise and rule the world
(C) the boys played the game of the boss and the slave
(D) the boys were dressed alike.
Ans.

54. The story of Jamaican fragment depicts in the finest detail that how we are likely
(A) to err in our thinking (B) to err in our acting
(C) to err in our behaviour (D) to err in our supporting.
Ans.

55. Sudha Chandran produced a film ‘Kalabhimani’ in the language
(A) Kannada (B) Tamil
(C) Hindi (D) Telugu.
Ans.

56. The ‘Blue Book’ is an official report of
(A) American Government (B) French Government
(C) Indian Government (D) British Government.
Ans.

57. We have submitted to a curtailment of private liberty, in order to enjoy a
(A) Social Contract (B) Social Order
(C) Social Standard (D) Social Security.
Ans.

58. A civilized person is a judicious mixture of common sense and
(A) ideas (B) ideals
(C) good personality (D) sense of humour.
Ans.

59. People wrote to Sudha and said it had given them a new hope. What made them to
say so ?
(A) They were inspired by her own story in the film
(B) By seeing her performance in Washinton D.C.
(C) By seeing her public recital in Bombay
(D) By seeing her way of dancing.
Ans.

60. Mihir Sen had undertaken the perilous swim
(A) to gain fame
(B) to gain trophies
(C) to win the hearts of the people
(D) to prove the world that Indians are no longer afraid.
Ans.

61. The crowning hour of an exacting venture for Mihir Sen was when
(A) a crash radio message from the President was handed over to him
(B) Lt. Martis gallantly took over the job of guiding him
(C) Lt. Martis encountered a largish snake and saved his life
(D) the people were waiting to welcome him with Nadaswaram.
Ans.

62. The merchant who was murdered in the inn was from
(A) Siberia (B) Nizhny
(C) Ryazan (D) Vladimir.
Ans.

63. Aksionov came to know that Makar was a real culprit because
(A) Makar himself revealed the secret (B) Aksionov investigated
(C) Aksionov could guess (D) Makar was caught by his own words.
Ans.

64. “It seems that only God can know the truth.” Aksionov remarked this because
(A) he did not know who had killed the merchant
(B) his wife also suspected him
(C) he was suspected by the police officer
(D) the governor rejected the appeal.
Ans.

65. Dr. Clicker was a specialist in
(A) trimming the nail (B) shampooing the hair
(C) cutting hair around the ear (D) shaving the face.
Ans.

66. The specialist refuses to be held responsible. This is an illustration for exaggeration
because
(A) nothing will happen if he postpones the shave
(B) something will happen if he postpones the shave
(C) it will lead to a nasal trouble
(D) to collect more fees.
Ans.

67. Dr. Follicle, first makes a diagnosis because he
(A) is one of the greatest capillary experts (B) is a consulting hairologist
(C) is the ex-chief examiner (D) has obtained Cap. D. degree.
Ans.

68. King Revatha’s lot was tragic because
(A) Punyajana Rakshasas destroyed Kushasthali
(B) he was leading a life of isolation
(C) his thirty brothers and seven sons had died fighting
(D) he lived in solitary caves.
Ans.

69. Baldwin’s son was named after Gresham because
(A) he was his family friend
(B) he was a relative
(C) he stood sponsor during his baptism
(D) he was the proprietor of the Third National.
Ans.

70. When Gresham asked Baldwin to hide the truth in the Court, he remained cool
because
(A) he was ready to do so in the court
(B) he wanted to take revenge on Gresham
(C) he knew that Gresham had become desperate
(D) he was offered with a lure of money.
Ans.

71. Marshall honoured and respected Baldwin because
(A) Baldwin told the truth in the court
(B) Baldwin was man of honesty and conscience
(C) Marshall liked him
(D) Baldwin was his close friend.
Ans.

72. The soul liberates itself from the shackles of life
(A) to attain longevity (B) to attain infinity
(C) to attain myriad forms (D) to get enormous strength.
Ans.

73. Sohrab was the son of
(A) a great French hero (B) a great Roman hero
(C) a great Persian hero (D) a great Greek hero.
Ans.

74. In the poem, ‘Autumn’ the poet is communing with
(A) himself (B) autumn
(C) spring (D) you, the reader.
Ans.

75. The lambs bleat loudly because
(A) they want to go home (B) they are hungry
(C) they also want to join the choir (D) they love to sing.
Ans.

76. Rustum struck him down because
(A) Sohrab grew up in Tartars’ army
(B) he did not know that he was his own son
(C) he was his enemy’s son
(D) he had the sign of griffin.
Ans.

77. The tiger king’s reply to his people suggests that he is
(A) proud (B) overconfident
(C) foolish (D) contemptuous.
Ans.

78. “Nice dog you got there, Ajamil” suggests
(A) the tiger king’s admiration for the dog
(B) the tiger king’s attempt to hide his disgrace
(C) the tiger king’s attempt to please Ajamil
(D) that the tiger king was rearing nice dogs.
Ans.

79. “I know the lie of the land,” suggests that the tiger king
(A) knew the natural features of the enemies’ territory
(B) knew that the people of the land were liars
(C) had the clear picture of the situation
(D) knew where the land lay.
Ans.

80. “We passed the school where children played,” here ‘we’ refers to
(A) poetess and death (B) poetess and her husband
(C) poet and poetess (D) death and driver.
Ans.

81. There is not a feat …………… arms …………… which she does not excel all my
disciples.
The appropriate prepositions to be filled in the blanks are
(A) in, of (B) of, at
(C) at, of (D) of, from.
Ans.

82. Arnold studied in ………… Oxford University of ……………… European country. The
correct articles to be filled in the blanks are
(A) a, a (B) the, the
(C) an, the (D) the, an.
Ans.

83. The doctors tried hard to arrest her injuries ……………… failed. An appropriate
conjunction to be filled in the blank is
(A) and (B) therefore
(C) but (D) so.
Ans.

84. Indian waters have always fascinated me.
The correct form of Passive voice is
(A) I have always been fascinated by Indian waters.
(B) I am always fascinated by Indian waters.
(C) I am always being fascinated by Indian waters.
(D) I was always fascinated by Indian waters.
Ans.

85. He looked into the mirror which was fixed to the wall. Name the parts of speech of
the italicized word.
(A) Relative clause (B) Pronoun
(C) Adjective (D) Relative pronoun.
Ans.

86. I don’t have a cell phone,
The suitable question tag to be added here is
(A) don’t I ? (B) do I ?
(C) didn’t I (D) did I ?
Ans.

87. What a terrible accident …………
The suitable punctuation mark to be added here is
(A) an interrogation ( ? ) (B) an exclamation ( ! )
(C) a full stop ( . ) (D) a semicolon ( ; ).
Ans.

88. The plane ……………… at 3·30.
Choose the correct form of verb to fill in the blank.
(A) arrive (B) will arrive
(C) arrived (D) arrives.
Ans.

89. To get the opposite word of ‘fortunate’ the prefix to be used is
(A) mis (B) un
(C) dis (D) im.
Ans.

90. The word which does not rhyme with ‘sweet’ is
(A) meat (B) heat
(C) beat (D) great.
Ans.

91. The antonym of the word, ‘inferior’ is
(A) supreme (B) superior
(C) high (D) very high.
Ans.

92. “For like the lightning to this field I came, and like the wind I go away.”
The figure of speech used here is
(A) Synecdoche (B) Personification
(C) Metaphor (D) Simile.
Ans.

93. An ode is a/an …………… poem.
Choose the correct answer to be filled in the blank.
(A) descriptive (B) satire
(C) narrative (D) elegy.
Ans.

94. The noun form of ‘Civilize’ is
(A) civility (B) civilization
(C) civil (D) civilian.
Ans.

95. The synonym of ‘Baffled’ is
(A) confused (B) big fight
(C) confident (D) sarcastic.
Ans.

96. The result would be that Piccadilly Circus would be a maelstrom. Maelstrom refers to
(A) a great fun (B) a great confusion
(C) a great passion (D) a great occasion.
Ans.

97. He was tired of play. He sat down to rest.
Choose the correct joining of the sentences.
(A) He is tired of play and sat down to rest
(B) Being tired of play, he sat down to rest
(C) He is tired of play so he sat down to rest
(D) He is tired of play sat down to rest.
Ans.

98. If you stayed longer ……………
Complete the sentence with appropriate answer.
(A) you could meet him (B) you should meet him
(C) you would meet him (D) you might meet him.
Ans.

99. The specialist to be consulted for disease related to weakness of nerves is a
(A) Cardiologist (B) Neurologist
(C) Dermatologist (D) Dentist.
Ans.

100. Clouds bloom in the soft-dying day. Here the italicized words refer to
(A) the setting sun (B) the sun
(C) the day is dying (D) the day is soft and dying.
Ans.

101. The grown-ups call the making of beautiful things as a sign of
(A) Civilization (B) Science
(C) Philosophy (D) Political Justice.
Ans.

102. Lot of things are necessary for free thinking such as
(A) going in cars (B) security, leisure and society
(C) keeping the rules (D) living in grandeur and luxury.
Ans.

103. My spirit laughed within me. Here ‘me’ refers to
(A) Jamaican (B) the father of the boys
(C) the brown woman (D) the author.
Ans.

104. The road on either side is flanked by
(A) yellow roofed bungalows (B) garden roofed bungalows
(C) red and green roofed bungalows (D) roofed bungalows.
Ans.

105. The two little boys were dressed alike in
(A) blue and khaki pants (B) blue shirts and khaki pants
(C) khaki pants and white shirts (D) khaki and blue.
Ans.

106. One must have social liberties
(A) to maintain social order
(B) so that private liberties must be curtailed
(C) to interfere in another’s ways
(D) so that everybody must follow the rules.
Ans.

107. In the midst of an earthquake one can enjoy reading a book on
(A) Don Quixote (B) Tristram Shandy
(C) Blue book (D) Tristram Shandy or Treasure Island.
Ans.

108. Sudha Chandran staged a historic comeback on
(A) January 26, 1985 (B) January 28, 1984
(C) October 27, 1982 (D) January 28, 1894.
Ans.

109. A card saying ‘Congratulation, you have made it !’ was given by
(A) her father (B) Washington audience
(C) a young girl (D) her guru.
Ans.

110. Sudha was a promising dancer with more than
(A) 70 performances (B) 80 performances
(C) 25 performances (D) 17 performances.
Ans.

111. What is the nickname for the lesson ‘Operation Indian Ocean’ ?
(A) The Operation Indian Ocean
(B) The Indian Ocean Adventure
(C) The Operation Snakes and Sharks
(D) Ocean Operations.
Ans.

112. Mihir Sen’s message to the youth is
(A) seeds of achievement lies in human mind
(B) challenging the weather
(C) to believe and persevere
(D) to endure.
Ans.

113. The original title of “The Long Exile” is
(A) God waits and sees the Truth
(B) God watches and waits
(C) The Truth is watched by God
(D) God sees the Truth but waits.
Ans.

114. Who is the world renowned Russian writer ?
(A) Chevok (B) Leo Tolstoy
(C) George Gardiner (D) Bertolt Brecht.
Ans.

115. The prisoners lovingly called Aksionov as
(A) Grandfather (B) ‘Grandfather’ and ‘The Saint’
(C) Rich merchant (D) Great grandfather.
Ans.

116. In “Further progress in civilization” the real intention of the author is to
(A) study the progress in hair dressing
(B) comment on over-specialization
(C) make us laugh
(D) study about progress.
Ans.

117. The consultant waived the question of the fees because
(A) he was not interested in money
(B) collection of fees was done at a different specialised counter
(C) he didn’t want to scare the man away
(D) he was a generous man.
Ans.

118. “Brother don’t stand here, dumb and hesitant.” This is said by
(A) The king of Kushasthali (B) Balaram
(C) Krishna (D) Uddhava.
Ans.

119. “The Warrior Princess” is a story of
(A) son’s unswerving devotion to his parents
(B) daughter’s unswerving devotion for her father
(C) the princess’ devotion to Balaram
(D) Revati’s devotion to Sandipani.
Ans.

120. The sea port carrying on a flourishing maritime trade is
(A) Sipra (B) Tirtha
(C) Kushasthali (D) Prabhasa.
Ans.

121. “The Hour of Truth” is written by
(A) A. G. Gardiner (B) Leo Tolstoy
(C) Percival Wilde (D) Butler Leacock.
Ans.

122. Who was Marshall in the lesson “The Hour of Truth” ?
(A) The President of the Third National
(B) The President of Cricket Association
(C) The President of America
(D) The President of the Fourth National.
Ans.

123. The poet in the poem ‘Anikethana’ speaks of the ideals which make one
(A) enter into spiritual bondage
(B) happy and attain spiritual upliftment
(C) philosophical
(D) free from material world.
Ans.

124. William Wordsworth is hailed as
(A) the lake poet (B) metaphysical poet
(C) the high priest of nature (D) the romantic poet.
Ans.

125. But that enormous barrier binds it fast. Here the italicized words refer to
(A) green mountains (B) rocky mountains
(C) precipice mountains (D) rocks and stones.
Ans.

126. Sohrab showed Rustum the sign of
(A) a giraffe on his arm (B) an imaginary animal
(C) a lion’s body (D) a griffin.
Ans.

127. “The Autumn” is a beautiful season of fruitfulness of
(A) fume of poppies (B) songs of birds
(C) mists and mellows (D) bosom friends.
Ans.

128. Clouds bloom in the soft-dying day. Here the italicized words refer to
(A) the setting sun (B) the sun
(C) the day is dying (D) the day is soft and dying.
Ans.

129. “I know the lie of the land,” suggests that
(A) the tiger king knew the natural features of the enemy’s territory
(B) the tiger king knew that the people of the land were liars
(C) the tiger king had a clear picture of the situation
(D) the tiger king knew where the land lay.
Ans.

130. The tiger king was back with
(A) a green patch on his eye
(B) a blue patch on his eye
(C) a black patch on his eye
(D) a black and blue patch on his eye.
Ans.

131. According to Emily Dickinson death is
(A) cruel (B) unjust
(C) inevitable (D) leveller.
Ans.

132. We passed the setting sun. The italicized words ‘setting sun’ symbolise
(A) God’s creation (B) the setting of the sun
(C) the old age (D) the last stage of man.
Ans.

133. The narrator of the poem “The Crutches” was cured by
(A) a great physician (B) lovely crutches
(C) nothing more than laughter (D) his laziness.
Ans.

134. When God says “So both should losers be,” He means that
(A) man will lose both God and His gifts
(B) both man and God will lose each other
(C) God will lose both man and his gifts
(D) man will lose the gifts of God.
Ans.

135. The policeman is the symbol not ……… tyranny but ………… liberty.
The prepositions to be filled in are
(A) of, with (B) of, of
(C) without, off (D) with, from.
Ans.

136. Give me ……………… one rupee note ( insert the article ).
(A) an (B) the
(C) a (D) some.
Ans.

137. The poor boy tried to answer ………… could hardly utter a word.
The suitable conjunction is
(A) and (B) yet
(C) but (D) either.
Ans.

138. all right said the patient ill have a specialist
This can be written with punctuation marks as
(A) ‘All right,’ said the patient, ‘I’ll have a specialist.’
(B) All right said the patient I will have a specialist.
(C) ‘All right !’ said the patient. ‘I will have a specialist.’
(D) All right, said the patient. I’ll have specialist.
Ans.

139. Solve this sum.
The passive form of the sentence is
(A) This sum was solved (B) Let this sum be solved by you
(C) This sum had been solved by you (D) This sum was solved by them.
Ans.

140. The child fell into a deep well.
Name the italicized word’s part of speech.
(A) Verb (B) Adjective
(C) Adverb (D) Noun.
Ans.

141. The cellphones are costly,
The appropriate question tag is
(A) they are ? (B) aren’t they ?
(C) are they ? (D) is not it ?
Ans.

142. If it rains ……………… .
Complete the sentence with appropriate answer.
(A) I might not come (B) I would come
(C) I will not come (D) I would not come.
Ans.

143. They ……………… sleeping when the thief ………………… the bedroom.
The correct tense forms of the verbs are
(A) was, enter (B) to be, entered
(C) were, entered (D) had been, enter.
Ans.

144. To get into rows.
The correct meaning for this idiom is
(A) to engage in a noisy or violent argument
(B) to engage oneself in conversation
(C) to engage in a work
(D) to arrange students to get into rows.
Ans.

145. The barbarism of mankind has taken several years to reach the present stage.
Write the antonym for the italicized word :
(A) Specialization (B) Civilization
(C) Realization (D) Materialization.
Ans.

146. There are four pairs of rhyming words.
Choose the incorrect pair.
(A) patter — clatter (B) clink — think
(C) sizzle — jingle (D) rumble — fumble.
Ans.

147. His voice rose like a gale.
Identify the figure of speech for the above sentence.
(A) alliteration (B) personification
(C) simile (D) metaphor.
Ans.

148. Give the noun form of the verb ‘Confuse’.
(A) Confusingly (B) Confused
(C) Confusedly (D) Confusion.
Ans.

149. Horne Tooke, met a person who behaved in a very proud way.
Give one word for the italicized words.
(A) Pompous (B) Swaggering
(C) Swagger (D) Shuffled.
Ans.
150. To get opposite of the word ‘comfort’, the prefix to be used is
(A) un (B) dis
(C) mis (D) non.
Ans.

151. Which one of the following is a sign of civilization ?
(A) Living in a palatial house (B) Driving a posh car
(C) Discovering new things (D) Inheriting power and riches.
Ans.

152. The necessities for a man to think freely are
(A) security, leisure and knowledge (B) luxury, security and beauty
(C) security, leisure and power (D) security, leisure and society.
Ans.

153. The author A. L. Hendricks describes the two boys as
(A) weak (B) bright
(C) strong (D) sturdy.
Ans.

154. The distance between the author’s house and the tramlines is
(A) half a mile (B) one and a half mile
(C) two miles (D) one mile.
Ans.

155. The author was amazed, when
(A) the dark boy obeyed the white boy’s orders faithfully
(B) he saw the boys playing on the lawn
(C) he thought about the inferiority of his race
(D) the white boy enacting the role of a master.
Ans.

156. The white man’s wife was a brown woman. This tells us that
(A) Jamaica was a democratic country (B) there was no racial discrimination
(C) there was racial discrimination (D) the Jamaicans were loving people.
Ans.

157. According to the author curtailment of private liberty brings about
(A) social justice (B) social order
(C) economic equality (D) social anarchy.
Ans.

158. Sudha described her America tour as
(A) enjoyable and touching (B) tedious yet enjoyable
(C) enjoyable and memorable (D) tedious and touching.
Ans.

159. A card saying “Congratulations, you have made it !” was given by
(A) Sudha’s father (B) Washington audience
(C) a young girl (D) Sudha’s guru.
Ans.
160. Which one of the following can be the suitable theme for the lesson ‘Long Exile’ ?
(A) Justice delayed ; Justice denied.
(B) It takes two to make a quarrel.
(C) Where there is a will, there is a way.
(D) It is an ill wind that blows nobody any good.
Ans.

161. When the police officials alighted from the troika, Aksionov was
(A) sleeping under a tree (B) feeding his horses
(C) playing his guitar (D) singing songs joyfully.
Ans.

162. The incident that caused the greatest sorrow to Aksionov was, when he was
(A) accused as guilty
(B) suspected by his wife
(C) condemned to be flogged
(D) flung into the cart with his feet tied.
Ans.

163. Makar was sent to the prison, because
(A) he had been caught for killing the merchant
(B) he had been accused of stealing a horse
(C) he had murdered a wealthy man
(D) he had stolen some valuables.
Ans.

164. Mihir Sen’s swim was postponed by forty-eight hours, because
(A) his preparation was incomplete
(B) he caught a chill
(C) south-west monsoon broke out suddenly
(D) one of the gun boats was missing.
Ans.

165. In olden days the treatment of a patient was
(A) primitive and simple (B) hard and unbearable
(C) primitive and gratifying (D) hard and primitive.
Ans.

166. The patient requested the doctor to postpone his shaving, because
(A) he had many things to do at his office
(B) he had to arrange some money
(C) he was getting annoyed for the delay
(D) he had been very tired.
Ans.

167. Dr. Follicle’s examination revealed
(A) a partial growth of hair (B) the patient’s history
(C) disease affected skin (D) an unhealthy growth of hair.
Ans.

168. The shoe-shining boy polished only the left shoe because
(A) he was left handed
(B) he was specialized in the use of left hand
(C) he had no right hand
(D) he liked to polish only the left shoe.
Ans.

169. The purpose of conducting a mock-fight between Balarama and Revathi was to
(A) test her proficiency in warfare
(B) enable Revathi to be very strong
(C) make Kukudmin understand Balarama’s expertise
(D) teach Revathi some tricks.
Ans.

170. King Revatha vowed before his guardian deity to
(A) destroy the Punyajana Rakshasas
(B) make Revathi victorious in the battle
(C) recapture Kushasthali
(D) immolate himself in the fire if he failed.
Ans.

171. The situation at the home of Baldwin was tense, because
(A) Baldwin had not returned (B) Baldwin was sent for by Gresham
(C) Evie had not returned home (D) Martha was miserably sick.
Ans.

172. What did Gresham want Baldwin to do ?
He wanted Baldwin to
(A) tell the truth (B) say that he did not remember
(C) bring John to the court (D) accept the bribe.
Ans.

173. Gresham offered Baldwin some money to
(A) give witness in his favour (B) tell false details in the court
(C) pretend a little forgetfulness (D) speak the truth.
Ans.

174. “The quest is endless.”
What is this quest for ?
It is for
(A) the soul’s spiritual upliftment (B) human bondage
(C) enjoyment (D) power and position.
Ans.

175. “Sad Sight !” the shepherd with a sigh looked around.
What does this sad sight refer to ?
It refers to
(A) an unusual cry of the dog (B) the human skeleton on the ground
(C) the lonely shepherd (D) the lonely fish that leaps.
Ans.

176. The shepherd saw the dog barking strangely
(A) beside the silent river (B) at the top of the mountain
(C) down the valley (D) among the scattered rocks.
Ans.

177. Rustum gazed on Sohrab with grief, because
(A) Sohrab called himself his son (B) he had killed his son
(C) the latter was wounded severely (D) the latter was strong and formidable.
Ans.

178. The tiger king’s reply to his people suggests that he is
(A) ignorant (B) innocent
(C) contemptuous (D) overconfident.
Ans.

179. “Nice dog, you got there, Ajamil,” suggests the tiger king’s
(A) admiration for the dog (B) attempt to hide his disgrace
(C) attempt to please the shepherd (D) cowardly nature.
Ans.

180. When God says, “so both should losers be”, He means
(A) man will lose both God and his gifts
(B) both man and God lose each other
(C) God will lose both man and his gifts
(D) man loses both power and wealth.
Ans.

181. Which one of the following was not found by the poet in the mailbox ?
(A) Sprigs (B) Twigs
(C) Eggs (D) Letters.
Ans.

182. When do we need noticeable quiet ?
We need it when we
(A) read for pleasure (B) talk to friends
(C) read something as a task (D) go on a long journey.
Ans.

183. Sohrab grew up to be a warrior in the
(A) Persian army (B) Roman army
(C) Tartar army (D) Turkish army.
Ans.

184. The merchant was killed ……………… the robber ……………… a sword.
The suitable prepositions to be filled in the blanks are
(A) with, from (B) by, with
(C) with, by (D) by, from.
Ans.

185. Complete the sentence :
If the rainfall is good, …………… .
(A) the farmers will reap a good harvest
(B) the farmers would reap a good harvest
(C) the farmers are reaping good harvest
(D) the farmers should reap good harvest.
Ans.

186. The boy stood on ……………… deck and watching ……………… huge waves.
The appropriate articles to be filled in the blanks are
(A) an, a (B) the, a
(C) an, the (D) the, the.
Ans.

187. Grievances cannot be redressed ……………… they are known.
The correct conjunction to be filled in the blank is
(A) lest (B) if
(C) unless (D) but.
Ans.

188. The governor gave him a reward.
The passive form of this sentence is
(A) He got a reward from the governor
(B) He is rewarded by the governor
(C) He will be rewarded by the governor
(D) He was given a reward by the governor.
Ans.

189. Her sobs could be heard in the still of the night.
The italicized word is a
(A) Noun (B) Verb
(C) Adjective (D) Preposition.
Ans.

190. “But how old you’ve grown, Grand dad ………… ”
The punctuation mark to be used at the end of the sentence is
(A) Full stop ( . ) (B) Exclamatory mark ( ! )
(C) Question mark ( ? ) (D) Comma ( , ).
Ans.

191. Rita won a prize, ………………
The appropriate question tag to be added is
(A) was she ? (B) did she ?
(C) didn’t she ? (D) wasn’t she ?
Ans.

192. While Balarama ……………… ( talk ), two young women …………… ( come ) to give
them water.
The tense forms of the verbs to be filled in the blanks are
(A) was talking, came (B) is talking, came
(C) talked, were coming (D) talked, are coming.
Ans.

193. The word ‘after’ does not rhyme with
(A) daughter (B) matter
(C) rafter (D) laughter.
Ans.

194. The white younger walked abjectly behind the dark elder one.
The italicized word means
(A) friendly (B) humbly
(C) faithfully (D) eagerly.
Ans.

195. The opposite of the word ‘definable’ can be formed by adding the prefix
(A) in (B) un
(C) non (D) dis.
Ans.

196. England won the match against Australia.
The figure of speech used in the above sentence is
(A) metaphor (B) alliteration
(C) synecdoche (D) personification.
Ans.

197. ‘Officially charge with a crime.’
The one word answer is
(A) Blame (B) Accuse
(C) Indict (D) Abuse.
Ans.

198. The old father did not confide the work of his children.
The noun form of the italicized word is
(A) confidently (B) confidence
(C) confidential (D) confidentially.
Ans.

199. He is too timid to get on in his company.
The opposite word of the italicized word is
(A) arrogant (B) bold
(C) shy (D) brave.
Ans.

200. The soldiers gave in after a long struggle.
The italicized phrase means
(A) discontinued (B) defeated
(C) stopped (D) surrendered.
Ans.